Coincidence may be the wrong word. A better question: "Does this have the highest correlation with english rule, or with some other factor?" say being coastal trade partners with the English before, and after Henry the 8th. A relation cemented due to higher profitability with the wealthier per capita England, by virtue of a monopolized access to british markets. An incentive structure would exist where by becoming protestant would increase their cooperation with the outcast England, and thereby maintain their trade profits with the island. France has plenty of what those territories produced without them, but the english would pay top dollar for french wines.
2 days ago
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The premise is off, the English and their Burgundian allies during the Hundred Years War controlled most of France if you include all the different stages, so the regions between the two were going to overlap to some extent. And even then the overlap wasn’t total. Languedoc, arguably one of the main strongholds of the Huguenots, was one of the main regions to stay with the French throughout the Hundred Years War.
2 days ago (edited) | 65
We know in hindsight that England became a predominantly Protestant country, so it would seem to make sense from that perspective that their former conquered possessions would skew towards Protestantism. However, the circumstances in which England became Protestant were rather strange compared to other places, as reformers in England took advantage of unique political issues and England’s official church became something that wasn’t quite Catholic and wasn’t quite Lutheran or Calvinist. Back when the Reformation first occurred, Henry VIII was firmly against it, and the Pope honored him with the title “Defender of the Faith”. It was only after that whole mess with Catherine of Aragon and Ann Boleyn that the English Reformation occurred, though Henry could have had other reasons for greater independence from Rome (as did many German rulers and the Kings of Denmark and Sweden). Had Henry and Catherine’s one son survived to adulthood instead of dying not even two months after birth, or had Arthur, Prince of Wales (Henry’s older brother) survived long enough married with Catherine to become King of England himself, I do not think the Reformation would have occurred the same way, if it would occur at all. I could see a King Arthur (or Henry with a son who lived) dealing with emerging Protestant groups in a similar way to how the Huguenots were dealt with in France, though due to England’s relative geographic isolation the dynamics and eventual outcome could certainly be different. Maybe it affects how Christianity in Scotland develops. Maybe Anglo-Irish relations end up quite different. Certainly it would affect English colonization of North America. So in the end I don’t know maybe the coincidence is due to some weird Anglo-French dynamic. Or I’m misunderstanding plenty of parts.
2 days ago (edited) | 32
Besides, England was a staunch Catholic kingdom before Henry VIII decided to divorce his Spanish wife. It was only after Henry's death that Protestantism had made inroads into England.
1 day ago | 10
Did you know that vanilla is used to make chocolate?
2 days ago | 23
It's kinda coincidental. But it's more like these regions influencing England rather than vice-versa. Besides, these regions also have commercial and political ties to England before the French kings centralized their state.
2 days ago | 9
If two neighbours fight today, it's because one of them was visited by English man yesterday
2 days ago | 5
Your Calvinist theory falls flat with the Afrikaaners, for its actually the exact opposite. The Afrikaans ended Apartheid in 1994, and the Dutch allowed gay marriage 1997. These are politically opposite Westerners
1 day ago | 17
Catholic v Protestant was really Monarch V Nobility, so this suggests that the nobility in this region was never really brought to heel.
20 hours ago | 1
You can draw a correlation (although that depends on what phase of the hundred years war we're talking about) however I wouldn't say it caused it. Instead these regions mercantile leanings (a demographic that favoured Protestantism more) likely had more to do with it than English rule two centuries prior.
1 day ago | 2
I noticed a similarity also between regions of Britains Dane law and the Civil war of the 1600s.
9 hours ago | 0
It doesn’t surprise me. Walker county, Georgia has the wonkiest borders. They were drawn up that way in order to avoid having a Catholic Church within the borders. To this day there isn’t a Catholic Church within the county but there are a couple sitting right next to the border. Lol. No one would know that if they weren’t from here, born from an “old family” or an intense local history buff. I’m all three. Lol
1 day ago | 0
It goes even further back, to the splitting of Frankia into West Frankia (went on to become the Angevin Empire under the rule of the English crown), Central Frankia (went on to become France, and East Frankia (went on to become the Holy Roman Empire).
1 day ago | 1
I think "yes" because English law regarding religious practices were always more "liberal" than France's rules. If I remember my period history.
1 day ago | 0
80 year (3.5generation) seasons- and 250 years for all 4 turnings.(on average)
15 hours ago (edited) | 0
Whatifalthist
Is it a coincidence that the English possessions in France in the Hundred Years’ War map very closely onto the Protestant regions in the French civil war 200 years later?
2 days ago | [YT] | 1,098